Sorry to disturb all of the football chat today, but wondered if we had any accounting experts on here who might be able to offer some free advice?
Essentially, my small consulting firm has won a project with a global brand headquartered in Denmark. As part of the agreement my terms of business / statement of work is with an intermediary company based in the UK rather than directly with the company. Pretty unusual but there's no impact to cost so going with it.
Going through the T&Cs today and I'm unable to charge VAT. The rationale behind this is that I'm being paid from Denmark and regardless of where the cash washes through, makes VAT not applicable. My logic would be that we're performing services in the UK and invoicing a UK based intermediary company, so VAT should be applied.
So... does the very fact that the works being paid in Denmark make VAT irrelevant? Or am I correct and VAT should be applied?
My accountant is 'looking in to this' which usually means a response will take several days.
0
Comments
Assuming that company is VAT registered (a lot of these intermediaries are not) they should then be able to reclaim it.
You can pay me for my advice in Lego or Carlsberg, if it's anyone else you're consulting for, consider it free.
Sounds pretty suspicious to me, but let's see what accountants such as Off_it have to say.
There are exemptions and zero rated services but on the face of it these wouldn't apply.
Immediately, I'm questioning why an intermediary, who is no longer an intermediary, is getting paid 15%, effectively just for raising an invoice? I check out the company and not to my surprise, the decision maker in awarding the contract is a Director of said random company.
I'm out. Not paying the correct tax was enough to make this anorak nervous, but potentially money laundering and bribery? No thanks.
Definitely not an official affiliate of the end client.
Bit of a pain in the arse and extra finance work but your company is still getting paid (what i assume was an agreed amount) to do the project.
If in the UK, then VAT applies, if outside the UK, zero rate VAT.
Don’t you swear at me!
You’ve got mail
Work for company that supplies EU companies and our invoices state "Intracommunity Supply - Reverse Charge" not sure this would apply for labour?
Unlike some EU Member States where they insist you quote the relevant EC Directive and/or national legislation, things are much more relaxed in the UK.
This is what HMRC's published guidance (VAT Information Sheet 10/07) states are acceptable narratives;
Reverse charge supplies:
Always thought RC was a book entry only and no cost to organisation.
It’s not just EU supplies either. I have recharges from India and been told I have to calculate reverse charges as the place of supply is where the costs end up not when the activity takes place. If that is not true would appreciate your thoughts as it is going to cost my charity mega bucks