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40 + 40 x 0 + 1 =??? - to solve an office argument!!!

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  • I think it's 1. However under some dubios system I have never heard of before I can see how you get 41. But there is no way it could ever be 81!
  • Blimey, I can't believe that anyone is still debating this when the single correct answer was given in the second post.
  • Okay, don't know if this point has been raised before. But:

    BODMAS (or BIDMAS) is the order in which one calculates certain parts of an equation, but - get this - ONLY IF SAID PARTS ARE PRESENT IN THE EQUATION.

    That is to imply, in the above, Brackets and Order/Index are not present.

    However, Multiplication is. Therefore we do the multiplication first. The next thing present is Addition. Then we add. Thus, the answer is (as everyone mathematically inclined has said) 41. To summarise:

    40 x 0 = 0

    40 + 0 = 40

    40 + 1 = 41

    If the answer were one, there would be brackets around the 40 + 40. Also if you were told to do the equation IN ORDER from left to right would the answer be one.

    40 + 40 = 80

    80 x 0 = 0

    0 + 1 = 1

    Hope that works out for everyone.

  • This is a question which people with small penis's who are not rich enough to afford the ferarri they want, try and show off their superior intellect, by applying some ridiculous theory that most people haven't heard of, in order to tell others they're wrong. Where the majority or us would answer 1, it allows the weeners to apply their Bodmin moor theory in order to get over their issues downstairs. You know who you are. I am comfortably enough to proudly admit I fall inti the '1' camp.
  • Haha... this is still going. Most people have said it's 41 haven't they? I've not counted.

    Math is math. There can only be one correct answer, it's 41.

    I studied French to GCSE level and happen to know that bonjour means "hello". Using SS's argument above, can we now have a 4 page debate arguing that "bonjour" does not mean hello, just because some people either didn't study it, can't remember studying it.... or just want to argue for the sake of arguing.

    Very funny thread. Gotta love it.
  • I have an O-level in maths, which compared to an A* in GCSE maths is the equivalent of a double first plus an exhibition in maths from Trinity College Cambridge.
  • I've got a calculator.
  • That's impressive Seth Plum. Well done.
  • I have an O-level in maths, which compared to an A* in GCSE maths is the equivalent of a double first plus an exhibition in maths from Trinity College Cambridge.
    As an exercise in hyperbole, that's very pretty Seth, but not a particularly constructive contribution to the discussion, particularly as you don't mention what grade you got :-)

    (It's more like an AS-level pass anyway)
  • It's bizarre that there's such a big debate about a maths problem... as @thecrazyaddick says there can only ever be one correct answer to any maths problem. In this case the answer is 41. If you come up with any other answer, you're doing it wrong.
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  • It's bizarre that there's such a big debate about a maths problem... as @thecrazyaddick says there can only ever be one correct answer to any maths problem. In this case the answer is 41. If you come up with any other answer, you're doing it wrong.

    Unless you say the sum out loud, one step at a time. Then the answer is nothing but 1.
  • Someone earlier said

    intelligence >>>> common sense

    common sense / logic may dictate that the answer could be 1

    but intelligence trumps this ... it can only be 41.

    Might not make sense from a logical stand point or when you say it out loud. But the original question was written anyway - so a moot point.
  • It's bizarre that there's such a big debate about a maths problem... as @thecrazyaddick says there can only ever be one correct answer to any maths problem. In this case the answer is 41. If you come up with any other answer, you're doing it wrong.

    Unless you say the sum out loud, one step at a time. Then the answer is nothing but 1.




    I'm gonna be a dick here (freely admitting that).

    Those mathematically inclined would take the phrase "one step at a time" to be ambiguous. There's an order in which to do the steps. However if you said "one step at a time from left to right" then happy days and your answer is one. Then again, most normal people (unlike me) aren't mathematically inclined.

  • Does that mean that most people whom are mathematically inclined are abnormal... and therefore a normal person (like me), who happens to be mathematically inclined is therefore actually abnormal? I'm now more confused than ever.
  • Does that mean that most people whom are mathematically inclined are abnormal... and therefore a normal person (like me), who happens to be mathematically inclined is therefore actually abnormal? I'm now more confused than ever.

    "Most". You're one of the few who are both normal and mathematically inclined then.
  • The answer is 41, end of story...

    If you rearrange the equation to

    40x0+40+1

    Maybe it will make it easier for the "non mathematically" inclined to understand that the answer is 41...
  • The answer is 41, end of story...

    If you rearrange the equation to

    40x0+40+1

    Maybe it will make it easier for the "non mathematically" inclined to understand that the answer is 41...
    wish I said that   :0)
  • The answer is 41, end of story... If you rearrange the equation to 40x0+40+1 Maybe it will make it easier for the "non mathematically" inclined to understand that the answer is 41...


    1640, isn't it?

    Sorry ... couldn't resist.


  • The answer is 41, end of story...

    If you rearrange the equation to

    40x0+40+1

    Maybe it will make it easier for the "non mathematically" inclined to understand that the answer is 41...
    wish I said that   :0)
    Are you related to Bertrand Russell?
  • Bodmin Moor theory
  • Sponsored links:



  • The answer is 41, end of story...

    If you rearrange the equation to

    40x0+40+1

    Maybe it will make it easier for the "non mathematically" inclined to understand that the answer is 41...
    wish I said that   :0)
    Are you related to Bertrand Russell?
    Oscar Wilde
  • 1
    *sigh*
  • No wonder the country has gone to the dumps, the majority of people cannot work out simple equations...*shakes head*

    The country has gone to the dumps because even when told black is black, some people insists it's white, and then don't have the good grace to backdown and admit they got it wrong. Same as I did when I made it 1.
  • It is 1 though, isn't it AA?
    ;o)
  • Haha... this is still going. Most people have said it's 41 haven't they? I've not counted.

    Math is math. There can only be one correct answer, it's 41.

    I studied French to GCSE level and happen to know that bonjour means "hello". Using SS's argument above, can we now have a 4 page debate arguing that "bonjour" does not mean hello, just because some people either didn't study it, can't remember studying it.... or just want to argue for the sake of arguing.

    Very funny thread. Gotta love it.

    I thought bonjour meant good day ;-)
  • edited November 2011
    Haha... this is still going. Most people have said it's 41 haven't they? I've not counted.

    Math is math. There can only be one correct answer, it's 41.

    I studied French to GCSE level and happen to know that bonjour means "hello". Using SS's argument above, can we now have a 4 page debate arguing that "bonjour" does not mean hello, just because some people either didn't study it, can't remember studying it.... or just want to argue for the sake of arguing.

    Very funny thread. Gotta love it.
    I thought bonjour meant good day ;-)


    It's an easy mistake to make, but it depends how you say it.

    The correct pronounciation is "Goo ... D-Day".  Note the pause.

    So 'bonjour' actually refers to the glue used during the Normandy landings.

  • It is 1 though, isn't it AA?
    ;o)

    :-D
  • I'm on board with this now but I still maintain my small penis theory. Brackets may be used to avoid confusion.
  • Just in case anyone's wondering why we do multiplication before addition, one explanation is that it's because of algebraic notation. Algebra helps to shorten mathematical sentences. For example, if you have 5 apples and 3 bananas, you could call that "5a + 3b". Now bear in mind that the expression "5a" actually means "5 x a" (or "apple" multiplied by 5 if you like), so the whole expression really means "5 x a + 3 x b". Now, if you did these operations (adding, multiplying etc) from left to right, you would get, after each stage, running totals of; "5a", then "5a +3", then a final answer of "5ab +3b". Unfortunately, the "5ab" part doesn't make sense, because there is no such thing as "five applebananas". Everybody, whether mathematically minded or not, understands that if you say "I've got 5 apples and 3 bananas, you mean "five lots of apples PLUS 3 lots of bananas". This statement is translated mathematically as:
    "5 x a + 3 x b" 
    and the multiplications are carried out first, the additions last.
    Mathematicians realised centuries ago that algebraic notation required multiplying to be carried out before adding and decided that there should be standard rules of precedence in operations when performing arithmetic. It was a natural decision to make multiplication take precedence over addition because it is consistent with algebraic notation and therefore less confusing(!!!)

    Now, if you consider the following situation:
    A person is given 42 scratchcards. He wins £40 on the first one, he then loses the next 40, then he wins £1 on the last one. How much money has he won altogether?
    Clearly, he has used all 42 scratchcards and his total winnings are £41. (1 lot of 40, 40 lots of 0 and 1 lot of 1)
    Now in order to write this down algebraically, you could consider the letters f, z and o to represent occasions where he won forty, zero or one pound respectively.
    This then becomes:
    1f + 40z + 1o
    but we don't need the "1" in front of and o, so it simplifies to:
    f + 40z + o
    but now, putting the values of f =40, z = 0 and o = 1 into the expression gives:

    40 + 40 x 0 + 1

    which was the question posed in the original post.
    The introduction of algebra to this situation may seem like it's making it even more complicated, but it's the best way I can think of to illustrate the reason why the answer can only be 41.

    Also, the thing with brackets and language - it is possible to infer brackets with language, by saying things like:
    "Add together 4 and 7, then multiply by 3".
    This translates as:
    (4 + 7) x 3
    because the "then" has indicated precedence of the addition, and therefore implies brackets around that part of the expression.

    Finally, if you're someone who thinks the answer is 1, it doesn't mean you're thick, and if anyone thought I was saying that or that I was being arrogant, then I'm sorry, that wasn't my intention. The whole reason BODMAS is taught is because this is such a common misconception. What I don't understand about this thread is why people continue to insist that the answer is 1 when countless people with clear and detailed knowledge on the subject have given thorough explanations. (I'm sure someone out there could tell me whether I've used "infer" and "imply" correctly above, and if they correct me then I'll bow to their knowledge and be happy to have learned something.)
    There's nothing wrong with being mistaken every now and then, you know.

    :-)
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